October 24, 2014 by JImbo
So, basically the judge said since the damage is done already (ie Conservative groups were kept sidelined in the 2012 election) then it’s too late to do anything.
That’s what the Judge said.
He added that he had “no evidence” that the IRS would do it again… so they’re off the hook.
He wouldn’t even CALL it a crime since “There is no jurisdiction for this court in the matter since the damage is no longer an issue.”
So… let’s apply this logically shall we?
If someone commits a crime… say…murder…
Then the judge would have you believe that “Well it’s done already. The person’s dead. What’s the point of doing anything about it now? It won’t bring them back from the dead.”
Further, this judge’s logic would be that the court would have no reason to even bother with any “crime” against the murderer since the murderer isn’t CURRENTLY killing anyone and there “is no evidence of future murders taking place.”
Yes, if the murderer just says “My bad… I won’t do it again” (like the IRS did) then that’s good enough.
How is this even remotely legal?
How can a judge get away with such political malfeasance?